kquick-
alright, this is JUST my opinion, but here goes...
I see exactly what you're saying. However, I think you're missing something. We do not perform a regression on JUST the yt-1 (the first differences)... you perform a regression on TWO columns of data: yt and yt-1. This is to form a regression model that looks like:
yt = a*yt-1 + b
a would be your AR(1) coefficient, and b would be your... whatever that greek letter is. Delta? I dunno. The circle-ish thing with a squiggly mark growing out the top. I'm tired, forgive me.
So, although a graph of your first differences should look like a squished together zig zag line, the graph of yt vs. yt-1 hopefully should not, and hopefully you can fit a decent line to it.
Caveat - I haven't gotten to this point yet either, althought I feel confident doing what I plan to do. I've had trouble getting the regression package in Excel to work.
Anyone else out there agree or disagree on this?